Let E be some piece of evidence and T be theism. Now consider the following argument.

E1 favors T.

E2 favors T.

.

.

.

En favors T.

————–

Therefore, T is probably true.

(Aside: You could swap out N=naturalism for T and the same fallacy would apply.)

Can you spot the fallacy? If you’re a philosopher, please do NOT respond in the combox.